- - PowerPoint PPT Presentation

https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/gk-current-affairs/story/interim- government-260823-2015-09-02

https://www.census2011.co.in/density.php

http://censusindia.gov.in/2011-prov- results/data_files/india/Final_PPT_201 1_chapter6.pdf

Introductory Macroeconomics

Introductory Macroeconomics

Introductory Macroeconomics

‘Sacrifice Ratio’ was introduced as the loss of

• utput sustained by the economy to achieve

reduction in the long-run inflation by one percentage point. https://rbi.org.in/SCRIPTS/BS_PressReleaseDis play.aspx?prid=34157

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=179882

In this direction, the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation has started bringing out estimates of new subscribers/members enrolling in large social security schemes like the Employees’Provident Fund (EPF), Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Scheme and the National Pension Scheme (NPS). The new members enrolling in these schemes are a good measure about the numbers in the workforce moving towards formalisation. http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1561902 http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=180857

• 42. Which is correct?

A. In the Malthusian theory of population growth, famines and diseases are considered as preventive checks to population growth

• B. The theory of demographic transition suggests that population growth

rates are low in the initial and final phases.

• C. Both A & B
• D. None of the above

43. Which

• f

the following are examples

• f

geographically distant territories belonging to the same nation?

• A. Kaliningrad
• B. Diego Garcia
• C. Malvinas/Falkland Islands
• D. All the above

• 42. Which is correct?
• A. In the Malthusian theory of population growth, famines and

diseases are considered as preventive checks to population growth

• B. The theory of demographic transition suggests that

population growth rates are low in the initial and final phases.

• C. Both A & B
• D. None of the above

43. Which

• f

the following are examples

• f

geographically distant territories belonging to the same nation?

• A. Kaliningrad
• B. Diego Garcia
• C. Malvinas/Falkland Islands
• D. All the above

• 44. In the creation of three new states in 2000, namely

Chhatisgarh, Uttaranchal and Jharkhand, which not played a prominent role?

• A. Ecology
• B. Ethnicity based on tribal identity
• C. Language
• D. Regional deprivation

• 45. HE denounced the injustice of the caste system and scorned

its rules of purity and pollution. In 1873 He founded the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth Seekers Society), which was devoted to securing human rights and social justice for low-caste people. HE stands for

• A. Jotirao Govindrao Phule
• B. Sri Narayana Guru
• C. Ayyankali
• D. None of the above

• 46. Before a Minister enters upon his office, he/she shall take
• aths of office and of secrecy according to the forms set out

for the purpose in the

• A. Second Schedule
• B. Third Schedule
• C. Fourth Schedule
• D. None of the above

• 47. While a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation,

duration of the House of the People be extended by

• A. Parliament by resolution for a period not exceeding one

year at a time

• B. Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a

time

• C. Parliament by law for a period not exceeding six months

at a time

• D. Parliament by resolution for a period not exceeding six

months at a time

• 48. Under Art. 85 The President may from time to time
• 1. Prorogue the House of the People
• 2. Dissolve the House of the People
• 3. Prorogue the Council of States
• 4. Adjourn the Houses
• A. 1, 2
• B. 1, 3
• C. 1, 2, 3
• D. 1, 2, 3, 4

• 49. Which is correct about Secretariat of Parliament?
• A. Parliament may by law regulate the recruitment, and the

conditions of service of persons appointed, to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament

• B. Each House of Parliament should have a separate secretarial

staff and creation of posts common to both Houses of Parliament is prevented by the constitution

• C. Both A & B
• D. None

• 50. A Rajya Sabha member elected in a bye-election

remains member for

• A. The remainder of the term
• B. A period of six years
• C. A period of two years
• D. A period of five years

• 51. The matters in respect of which the both Houses
• f Parliament enjoy equal powers are
• 1. Election and impeachment of the President
• 2. Election and removal of the Vice-President
• 3. Approving the Proclamation of Emergency
• A. 1, 2
• B. 2, 3
• C. 13
• D. 1, 2, 3

https://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/publicatoin_electronic/FAQ.pdf

• 52. If the Council of States has declared by resolution

that, it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, Parliament should make laws, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws. This is with respect to

• A. Goods and services tax provided under article 246A
• B. Any matter enumerated in the State List
• C. Both A & B
• D. None

https://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/council_state/council_state.asp

• 53. Who had served Leader of the House both in

Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?

• 1. Lal Bahadur Shastri
• 2. Lal K. Advani
• 3. Pranab Mukherjee
• 4. Morarji Desai
• A. 3
• B. 1, 4, 3
• C. 1, 3
• D. 1, 2, 3, 4

• 54. Which is correct?
• A. Realising the vital role played by the chief whips and leaders of

parties and groups in parliament as important party functionaries, an Act namely the Leaders and Chief Whips of Recognised Parties and Groups in parliament (Facilities) Act was passed during the Twelfth Lok Sabha

• B. The Chief Whip of the Government Party in the Lok Sabha is the

Minister of Parliamentary Affairs and in the Rajya Sabha, the Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs holds this position C. Both A & B D. None

• 55. Which types of questions are possible in Lok Sabha?
• 1. Starred
• 2. Unstarred
• 3. Short Notice Questions
• 4. Questions to Private Members
• A. 1, 2
• B. 1, 2, 3
• C. 1, 2, 4
• D. 1, 2, 3, 4

http://164.100.47.194/Loksabha/Questions/TypeOfQuestions.aspx

56. Consider the following statements about Committee

• n

Empowerment of Women

• 1. The committee consists of 30 members (20 LokSabha+10 Rajya

Sabha)

• 2. Members are nominated by Speaker and Chairman of respective

houses

• 3. Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker
• 4. Minister can be a Member
• 5. Only female MPs are possible to be a member

Which is correct?

• A. 1, 4, 5
• B. 1, 2, 3, 5
• C. 1, 2, 3
• D. 2, 3, 5

• 57. Which is NOT correct?
• 1. The Indian Parliamentary Group is an autonomous body

formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly (Legislative) on 1948

• 2. Membership of the Indian Parliamentary Group is open only

to the serving Members of Parliament

• A. 1 only
• B. 2 only
• C. 1, 2
• D. None of the above

• 58. Which is correct?
• A. The President may appoint the Governor of a State as the

administrator of an adjoining Union territory, and where a Governor is so appointed, he shall exercise his functions with the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers

• B. Parliament may by law constitute a High Court for a Union

territory or declare any court in any such territory to be a High Court for all or any of the purposes of this Constitution

• C. Both A & B
• D. None

• 59. ‘There shall be no limitation whatever on the constituent power
• f Parliament to amend by way of addition, variation or repeal the

provisions of this Constitution under the article 368.’ This has been declared invalid by the Supreme Court in

• A. Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India
• B. Kesavananda Bharati vs. the State of Kerala
• C. Minerva Mills Ltd. and Others vs. Union of India and Others
• D. Supreme Court Advocates‘on Record Association vs. Union of

India

• 60. Which law will have more permanency?
• 1. Parliament’s legislation for giving effect to international

agreements

• 2. Parliament’s legislation for two or more States by consent

and adoption of such legislation by any other State

• 3. Parliament’s legislation with respect to any matter in the

State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation

• 4. Parliament’s legislation with respect to a matter in the State

List in the national interest

• A. 1, 2
• B. 1, 2, 4
• C. 3, 4
• D. 1, 2, 3, 4

61. Geo-fencing is the creation

• f

virtual geographical boundaries using

• A. Global Positioning System (GPS)
• B. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology
• C. Both A&B
• D. None

• 62. Nano drones/ Remotely Piloted Aircraft in India can fly
• legally. What is the weight to be in this category?
• A. Less than or equal to 2 kg
• B. Less than or equal to 25 kg
• C. Less than or equal to 250 grams
• D. Less than or equal to 500 grams

• 63. Consider the following statements
• 1. India made a voluntary pledge in 2009 to reduce the emission

intensity of its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by 20-25 per cent from 2005 levels by 2020 including emissions from agriculture

• 2. India has enhanced its climate goals in 2015 outlining eight (8)

goals for 2021-2030, including reduction

• f

the emission intensity of its GDP by 33-35 per cent from 2005 levels by 2030 Which is incorrect?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 1, 2
• D. None

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=183093

• 64. Consider the following statements about CD4 count in the

context of HIV/AIDS

• 1. CD4 cells are Red blood cells
• 2. A normal range for CD4 cells is about 500-1,500
• 3. When the CD4 count drops below 200, a person is diagnosed with

AIDS Which is correct?

• A. 1, 2
• B. 2, 3
• C. 1, 3
• D. 1, 2, 3

• 65. The CAPFs are armed forces under the Ministry of Home

Affairs and comprise which of the following forces

• 1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police
• 2. National Disaster Response Force
• 3. Assam Rifles
• 4. Sashastra Seema Bal
• A. 1, 3
• B. 2
• C. 1, 3, 4
• D. 1, 2, 3, 4

• 66. Consider the following statements about Bharat

Ke Veer corpus fund

• 1. Bharat Ke Veer corpus fund would be managed by

a commitee made up of eminent persons of repute who would decide to disburse the fund equitably to the bravehearts family on need basis

• 2. To ensure maximum coverage, a cap of ₹15 lakhs is

envisaged per braveheart Which is incorrect?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 1, 2
• D. None

• 67. Which of the following critical sectors that

will be helpful for development in North Eastern Region?

• 1. Tourism
• 2. Bamboo
• 3. Dairy
• 4. Fisheries
• 5. Tea
• A. 1, 2, 3
• B. 2, 4
• C. 3, 4, 5
• D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

• 68. Indian cities on the list of UNESCO Creative Cities list
• 1. Chennai
• 2. Jaipur
• 3. Thiruvananthapuram
• 4. Varanasi
• A. 1, 2
• B. 2, 4
• C. 1, 2, 4
• D. 1, 2, 3, 4

• 69. Which is incorrect in the list of classical dance

traditions?

• A. Manipuri
• B. Kuchipudi
• C. Odissi
• D. Chhau

• 70. Which is correct?
• 1. The infant mortality rate and the neonatal

mortality rate per 1,000 live births

• 2. The infant mortality rate in India is higher than

the global average

• 3. The neonatal mortality rate in India is higher than

the global average

• 4. The neonatal mortality rate in India is higher than

infant mortality rate in India

• A. 1
• B. 2, 3
• C. 4
• D. All of the above

• 71. Which is correct about the Rights of Persons with Disabilities

Act, 2016?

• A. This Act enacted to give effect to the United Nations Convention
• n the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
• B. The number of specified disabilities increased from 7 to 21

under this Act

• C. The Act says that, the Election Commission of India and the State

Election Commissions shall ensure that all polling stations are accessible to persons with disabilities

• D. All the above

• 72. Which is not correct?
• A. The World Customs Organization (WCO), established in 1952

as the Customs Co-operation Council (CCC) is an independent intergovernmental body whose mission is to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of Customs administrations.

• B. WCO representing more than 90% of world trade
• C. India joined World Customs Organization in 2018
• D. India has contributed to the Customs Appropriation Fund of

the WCO

• 73. Honolulu is in
• A. Arctic Ocean
• B. Indian ocean
• C. Pacific Ocean
• D. Southern Ocean

• 74. Which of the following is not part of Home

Ministry?

• 1. Directorate of Enforcement
• 2. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
• 3. Intelligence Bureau
• A. 1, 2
• B. 2, 3
• C. 1, 2, 3
• D. None of the above

• 75. Central Bureau of Investigation
• 1. The Delhi Special Police Establishment acquired its popular current

name, Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), through a Home Ministry resolution in 1963

• 2. CBI is to investigate cases of bribery and corruption by Central

Government employees and the employees

• f

public sector undertakings

• 3. CBI is entrusted with the investigation of Economic Offences
• 4. CBI is entrusted with the investigation of crimes such as murders

and kidnapping on a selective basis

• 5. CBI is entrusted with the investigation of crimes terrorist crimes on

a selective basis Which is correct?

• A. 1, 2, 3
• B. 1, 2, 3, 4
• C. 1, 2
• D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

76. India’s heaviest communication satellite GSAT-11 launched successfully from

• A. French Guiana
• B. Hassan in Karnataka
• C. Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota
• D. Vikram Sarabhai Space Center, Trivandrum

• 77. Consider the following statements about UNNATI -

Which is not correct? A. India has announced this capacity building training programme on Nanosatellites development

• B. It is a combination of theoretical coursework and

hands-on training on Assembly, Integration and Testing (AIT)

• C. Participants are from different universities of

various parts of India are participating in this programme

• D. None of the above

• 78. Which of the place/s have ISRO CENTRES?
• A. Bylalu
• B. Port Blair
• C. Shillong & Udaipur
• D. All the above

• 79. Rispana and Bindal rivers are tributaries of
• A. Brahmaputra
• B. Cauvery
• C. Ganga
• D. Indus

• 80. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
• 1. It defines the child in need of care and protection
• 2. It defines the children in conflict with law
• 3. It mandates registration of all Child Care Institutions only funded by

non governmental bodies Which is correct?

• A. 1, 2
• B. 2, 3
• C. 1, 3
• D. 1, 2, 3

• 81. Objectives of the Agriculture Export Policy 2018 -

Which is not correct?

• A. To double agricultural exports and reach US$ 100

Billion

• B. To diversify our export basket, destinations and

boost high value and value added agricultural exports including focus on perishables

• C. To strive to double India’s share in world agri

exports by integrating with global value chain at the earliest

• D. It promotes only non-traditional Agri products

exports

• 82. Which is correct about National Mission on Interdisciplinary

Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS)?

• A. It is to be implemented by Department of Science &Technology

in a hub and spoke model

• B. It is a Pan India Mission and covers entire gamut of India that

includes Central Ministries, State Governments, Industry and Academia

• C. Both A & B
• D. None

• 83. Shahpurkandi Dam (National Project) - Which is

correct?

• A. Implementation of this project would help minimising

some of the water of the River Ravi which at present is going waste

• B. The implementation of scheme would benefit Punjab and

Haryana and an agreement was reached between Punjab and Haryana states

• C. Both A & B
• D. None

• 84. The biosafety level that covers laboratories work with HIV is
• A. Biosafety Level 1
• B. Biosafety Level 2
• C. Biosafety Level 3
• D. Biosafety Level 4

• 85. Egmont Group is related to
• A. Developing countries group that seeks to support mitigation and

adaptation actions that will address climate change

• B. Developed countries group that will address climate change
• C. Money Laundering and the Financing of Terrorism
• D. WTO Work Programme on Electronic Commerce

• 86. Spacesuit - Which is not correct?

A. Spacesuit protects astronauts from the extreme temperatures

• B. In the microgravity environment of space, a spacesuit

weighs nothing

• C. Indian Space Research Organisation developed a white-

coloured space suit at Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre in Thiruvananthapuram

• D. The reason that spacesuits are white is because white

reflects heat in space the same as it does here on Earth

• 87. India is faced currently with double burden of disease. which is

correct about double burden of disease?

• A. On the one hand, India is making rapid strides in medical tourism. On

the

• ther

hand, Urban-rural divide in providing state-of-the-art healthcare services

• B. On the one hand, we are still grappling with dengue, swine flu,

chikangunya, malaria and HIV. On the

• ther

hand, the Non- Communicable Diseases (NCDs) are taking a heavy toll

• C. On the one hand, we are still grappling with dengue, swine flu,

chikangunya, malaria and HIV. On the other hand, Urban-rural divide in providing state-of-the-art healthcare services

• D. On the one hand, millions people fall into poverty each year due to

lack of financial protection for their healthcare needs. On the other hand, Urban-rural divide in providing state-of-the-art healthcare services

• 88. Arrange the sectors in their contribution to the target of 175 GW of

renewable energy from high to low

• A. Wind, Solar, Small Hydro Power, Bio-power
• B. Wind, Solar, Bio-power, Small Hydro Power
• C. Solar, Wind, Bio-power, Small Hydro Power
• D. Solar, Wind, Small Hydro Power, Bio-power

• 89. Khelo India programme – which is not correct?
• A. The Khelo India programme has been introduced to revive the

sports culture in India at the grass-root level

• B. Khelo India programme has been divided into 12 verticals
• C. Talented players identified in priority sports disciplines at various

levels by the High-Powered Committee will be provided annual financial assistance of INR 5 lakh per annum for 8 years

• D. None of the above

• 90. India is building 250 houses in Rakhine province as

part of a developmental project. The first batch of 50 houses was formally handed over to the authorities. This project is in

• A. Afghanistan B. Myanmar
• C. Nepal
• D. Srilanka

• 91. Which is NOT correct?
• A. India is the largest exporter of Basmati rice, which is one of

the major varieties of aromatic or scented rice B. The Agricultural & Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), an autonomous organisation has been mandated with the export promotion of Basmati rice

• C. APEDA has been able to register Basmati Rice as a

Geographical Indication (GI)

• D. None of the above

• 92. Which is correct?
• A. Compulsory licences are granted according to the provisions of

the Patents Act, 1970

• B. India's first compulsory licence was granted to NATCO Pharma,

Hyderabad for Bayer's cancer drug with brand name “NEXAVAR”

• C. “NEXAVAR”, is used for the treatment of kidney and liver cancer
• D. All the above

• 93. Bhavani Island is in
• A. The midst of the Godavari River, Andhra Pradesh
• B. The midst of the Krishna River, Andhra Pradesh
• C. The midst of the Krishna River, Maharashtra
• D. The midst of the Krishna River, Telangana

• 94. Which is correct?
• A. The Ross Island will be known as Netaji Subhas

Chandra Bose Island

• B. The Neil Island will be known as Swaraj Island
• C. The Havelock Island will be known as Shaheed Island
• D. All the above

• 95. Who was a/were member/s of the 'Gadar Party'?
• A. Prithvi Singh Azad
• B. Trilokya Nath Chakraborty
• C. Ullaskar Dutta
• D. All the above

• 96. Which is not correct?
• A. India is among the first five countries in the world, the first

in Asia and the first among the biodiversity rich mega diverse countries to have submitted Sixth National Report (NR6) to the CBD Secretariat

• B. The NR6 provides an update all the 20 global Aichi

biodiversity targets

• C. With well over 20 percent of its total geographical area

under biodiversity conservation, India has exceeded the terrestrial component of 17 percent of Aichi target

• D. India has also made noteworthy achievement towards

National Biodiversity Targets (NBT) relating to access and benefit sharing (ABS) by

• perationalising

the Nagoya Protocol on ABS

• 97. ISRO visited the islands of Sao-Tome and Principe and

identified a suitable parcel of land for establishing the ground station [setting up a satellite tracking station]. Sao-Tome and Principe is in

• A. North Africa
• B. North Atlantic Ocean
• C. South Africa
• D. South Pacific Ocean

• 98. Which is not correct?
• A. The Union Cabinet has approved the Gaganyaan Programme with

demonstration of Indian Human Spaceflight capability to low earth orbit for a mission duration ranging from one orbital period to a maximum of seven days

• B. A human rated GSLV Mk-lll will be used to carry the orbital module which

will have necessary provisions for sustaining a 3-member crew for the duration of the mission

• C. ISRO has completed/ tested development of launch vehicle GSLV Mk-lll, the

crew escape system, elements of life support system and space suit except the orbital & re-entry mission and recovery operations

• D. Prior to this, two unmanned flights in full complement will be carried out

to gain confidence on the technology and mission management aspects

• 99. Drone Olympics recently held in
• A. Bengaluru
• B. Chennai
• C. Delhi
• D. Hyderabad

• 100. National e-Vidhan Application
• 1. All the 40 Houses(Legislatures) are at one

App making it truly a National App thereby proving the concept

• f

“One Nation One Application”

• 2. NeVAwill be used only by the legislatures of

both Centre and State Level to make a sea level change in the working of Houses Which is correct?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 1, 2
• D. None