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Is GDP/cap a representative welfare measure? An alternative - - PowerPoint PPT Presentation

Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion Is GDP/cap a representative welfare measure? An alternative proposal, accounting for level and distribution Lorenzo Cerda Planas PhD Seminar of the Inequality research group INEQUO December 13


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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

Is GDP/cap a representative welfare measure? An alternative proposal, accounting for level and distribution

Lorenzo Cerda Planas PhD Seminar of the Inequality research group INEQUO December 13th, 2013

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

Before Starting

Some (important) disclaimers: The idea is to present you some thoughts and results, in order to discuss them (at the end!) I am (definitely) not an expert in the subject. Work in progress...

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

Motivation

’Triggering’ question: After so much economic development, why it seems that people are not doing well? (or not being happy or pleased) Maybe we are not measuring or focusing on the right index? Not a new problem → Stiglitz-Sen-Fitoussi commission: Recommendation 4: Give more prominence to the distribution of income, consumption and wealth. It looks that the rich are much better off than the poor. That

  • verwhelming difference is not reflected in the indicators.

GDP/cap definitely doesn’t show this. Inequality indexes might not tell too much either.

Lets see the following...

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

Motivation

VIDEOS

First video: Think Reality - USA

Video 1

Second video: Fundaci´

  • n Sol - Chile

Video 2

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

Discussion

We want to measure how we are doing (as societies). And the GDP/cap was a (fairly) good index, back then. Why?

Maybe before inequality was lower. Maybe because at those levels of income, it better measured welfare.

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

Concerning inequality...

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

But what is the aftermath of a growing economy with a growing inequality?

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

But what is the aftermath of a growing economy with a growing inequality?

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

But what is the aftermath of a growing economy with a growing inequality?

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

Proposal

IDEA: Instead of having two indexes (level and inequality), lets have

  • ne that accounts for both dimensions.

We can measure the Social Welfare: W = W (y1, y2, . . . , yN)

where yi is the income of the i-th individual.

We can use an additive Social Welfare Function (SWF): W = 1 N

N

  • i=1

U(yi) This expression says that the social welfare is represented by average utility, being agent’s i utility: U(yi) With U(yi) = 1 1 − ǫy 1−ǫ

i

ǫ = 1 U(yi) = ln(yi) ǫ = 1

where ǫ is the parameter of inequality aversion.

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

Proposal

Lets use U(yi) = ln(yi/ymin) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

where ymin is the subsistence income level.

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

Proposal

In order to have a number that tells us something, lets: ˜ Y = U−1(W (y))

with y = (y1, y2, . . . , yN)

in other words, ˜ Y is a ’representative’ income level. Some (cool?) properties of ˜ Y :

˜ Y is independent of the chosen value of ymin. ˜ Y (A · y) = A · ˜ Y (y) for A > 0. If we use U(yi) = ln(yi) then: ˜ Y (y) =

n

√y1 · y2 · · · yn ← geometric mean.

˜ Y is increasing in individual income levels (sometimes called Paretian principle) If ǫ = 0, then it is inequality averse.

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

A simple example: two agents, y1 the poor one and y2 the rich one:

A transfer from the rich to the poor moves X to the right. Meaning same GDP/cap and higher ˜ Y . ˜ Y attains its maximum when there is perfect equality. This is a general result: the AM-GM inequality.

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Motivation Discussion Proposal Final Discussion

For the general case (ǫ = 1):

Actually, the ˜ Y function used so far, is the Equally Distributed Equivalent Income YEDE used by Atkinson in his index of inequality.

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Some results: Chilean example

(2006 data)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

  • 1.000
  • 0.500

0.000 0.500 1.000 1.500 2.000 2.500 3.000 $0 $200,000 $400,000 $600,000 $800,000 $1,000,000 $1,200,000 $1,400,000 $1,600,000 $31,229 $79,064 $108,663 $134,197 $161,375 $198,473 $252,989 $337,196 $513,404 $1,470,620 Ingreso por Persona ln(ing/ingMin)

$328.720 $193.680

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Some results

1967 1969 1971 1973 1975 1977 1979 1981 1983 1985 1987 1989 1991 1993 1995 1997 1999 2001 2003 2005 2007 2009 2011 30,000 35,000 40,000 45,000 50,000 55,000 60,000 65,000 70,000 75,000 80,000 0.20 0.25 0.30 0.35 0.40 0.45 0.50

USA

Mean Yede(e=1) Gini

Gini (Inequality) Source: US Census Bureau

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Some results

1990 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 2001 500 1,000 1,500 2,000 2,500 3,000 30 32 34 36 38 40 42 44

China

GDP/capita Yede (e=1) GINI index

GDP (PPP, current international $) Gini (Inequality) Source: World Bank

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Final Discussion

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Final Discussion

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Final Discussion

Is it that we are not able to agree on an inequality aversion parameter ǫ? But actually the difference is not that big:

Source: Atkinson (1970): On the Measurement of Inequality.

And knowing that YEDE = (1 − I)Y

with I the Atkinson’s Inequality Index and Y the mean, or just GDP/cap.

We can see that the change in YEDE with ǫ = 1 or ǫ = 1.5 is not that big, even for the USA (which was unequal already that that time). But recall that GDP/cap is just saying that ǫ = 0 (an implicit agreement?) Or it is that...

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Final Discussion Or it is just that we don’t want to ’see’ this reality? THANK YOU For your attention